Quote:
Originally Posted by Sailor Steve
None of the New Testament was written in Hebrew. Since the book you cite was written in 1385 changes to the Gospel can only be counted as "after the fact" and are altered to meet the beliefs of the translator. That makes them invalid as proof for a discussion of the original text. A better argument might be to question how much of the quotations in the Gospels were said by Jesus at all.
|
Umm I dont think thats not true.
Shem Tovs text is unlike the Byzantine Greek texts today, of his day or any other known Greek text. If he had made a fresh translation it would have rendered one of those forms. In regards to theology the Hebrew text never identify Jesus as messiah or divine. Shem Tov's comments scattered throughout the Hebrew text suggest he did not create it.
Stylistically the Hebrew text is saturated with word puns, word connections, and alliterations strongly suggesting Hebrew language originality. There is some evidence that suggests the Greek texts we have today were translated from original Hebrew source. Not the other way around. Jerome, Eusebius, Origen and Epiphanes allude to it in their writings. Papias came right out and said it. "Matthew collected the oracles in the Hebrew language, and each (Greeks) interpreted them the best he could"
So I will stand by what I said: It depends which book of Matthew you read as to what Jesus supposedly said. Christians simply tend to go with the Greek texts because they dont have a clue a Hebrew version exists.
Quote:
The problem there is that in the Matthew passages following the Beatitudes Jesus is specifically addressing and contravening those Old Testament quotes, following the fashion of "You have heard it said...but I say to you..."
|
Honestly I dont think he is contravening any Old Testement texts rather he is supporting them. But thats another topic. and this one has the beginnings of a derailement
One of my sources was from George Howard's (University of Georgia) the Hebrew Gospel of Matthew