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Old 01-24-10, 12:27 AM   #1
mookiemookie
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The Constitution's 1st Amendment is very clear on this. Congress shall make no law abridging the freedom of speech. It doesn't say "EXCEPT in the case of elections"..
The 1st Amendment applies to people. Corporations are not people and should not be thought of as such.
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Old 01-24-10, 12:51 AM   #2
August
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The 1st Amendment applies to people. Corporations are not people and should not be thought of as such.
Nothing you just said implies that corporations do not have 1st Amendment rights.
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Old 01-24-10, 02:23 AM   #3
Aramike
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The 1st Amendment applies to people. Corporations are not people and should not be thought of as such.
Corporations are merely groups of people.

Like unions. Like media outlets. Like the Daily Kos.

And they are not considered people - corporations have no vote.

Oh, and by the way, where does the Constitution say that the first amendment is restricted in ANY way whatsoever?

In any case, however, you're intent is to restrict the speech of a group of people, ultimately. How is that Constitutional?
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