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#1 | |||
Ace of the Deep
![]() Join Date: Jan 2006
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I can see the way most of this board had voted, but for what it is worth...
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A commonly-cited example would be an employer that insisted on some kind of strength test to be included into his selection process. Well, obviously, men would average better than women. But if the job doesn't require strength, then is it discrimination, or not? I mean, it was the same test for everyone! Quote:
If "Fair Test A" shows that the winners should be 90% White, 10% Hispanic and 0% Black and "Fair Test B" shows that the winners should be 33% White, 33% Hispanic, and 33% Black, which is the test that should be adopted, or are you going to average the two? It is not always possible to clearly name what was biased about a test. We are already way past that era reputable organizations would dare do that. What is left are subtle or accidental biases that entered the test. Reading the first district court's judgment, the concern seems to be that the test results are biased towards the Whites far more than normal. Sure, it is possible that the Whites were really just that much better than the others this time round, but statistically large groups basically don't change that quickly. Which leaves the other possibility looming large. In such a case, going for a retest is probably reasonable (though they should have done it faster so people that deserve promotion are not too unduly delayed). Quote:
If such is the case, what are you going to do? Retract the promotions? Let the injustice stand? Or rationalize it by saying no matter how it happened according to the test (even though one side was arguably being sabotaged) the whites were better? |
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Stowaway
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#3 |
Rear Admiral
![]() Join Date: Mar 2005
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I guess that would depend on when they asked for it.
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Follow the progress of Mr. Mulligan : http://www.subsim.com/radioroom/showthread.php?t=147648 |
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Soaring
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__________________
If you feel nuts, consult an expert. |
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