Alimony

[AVGWarhawk]

Originally Posted by ETR3(SS)

True, but they only cover before the marriage. If my GF took out a loan for $10,000, we got married, and no prenup was signed, than that legally becomes my debt upon her death or our divorce.

I do not believe that is true. Premarital possession do not fall under marital possesson. Therefore the loan was before the marriage is hers only. Your name is not on it. How can the loan institution go after you? If they want their money just give them her new address at the cemetary to send the bill. I have seen others do that. My college roommate mom did that to the IRS. The IRS said her husband owned back taxes. She gave them the cemetary address. After all , he owned the taxes and not her. They never called again.

If you owned the house before marriage it is not marital possessions and does not fall under the 50/50 rule. She however can claim monies for improvements and such. She then might get proceeds if the house is sold.