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Old 06-14-06, 07:31 AM   #11
Skybird
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Quote:
Originally Posted by scandium
Quote:
Originally Posted by Skybird
I found this article to be a good summary of differences in Muslim and Christian attitude towards violance.

http://www.canada.com/components/pri...2-2b7b0ccce158
That article makes the same point I've made here as well:

But this need not be the only way of interpreting these texts. One alternative -- quite common in some faith communities -- might be to decide that these were commands for a very particular set of circumstances, but that they no longer apply to modern believers in this time. Another option, advanced recently by the Turkish scholar Israfil Balci, is to reject the classical interpretations of these commands as a product of the political tensions of the period.

Muslims are not the only scriptural community to face challenges of interpretation. Jews and Christians who regard the Hebrew scriptures as the Word of God must deal with the conquest of Canaan, the commandment of total cherem destruction, the violence of judges like Samson and the bloodshed of kings like David -- among many other materials that suggest Godly approval for aggressive warfare against non-believers.


Conversely, warring Christians who accept the authority of the Gospel must deal with the apparent prohibition of violence in the teachings and life example of Jesus. This discussion has been going on among Christians at least since the Crusades, when critics were heard to say "that it is not in accordance with the Christian religion to shed blood in this way, even that of wicked infidels. For Christ did not act thus."
the article also said that the history of Islam unfortunately has gone against this "tradition". This is what you do not say. It also says that the violent passages are far more attractive especially to younger muslims.

And as I often said myself, the Korn is filled with contradiction that allow Islam to claim one thing while doing another at the same time. Very practical. I myself see the call for violance clearly dominating Hadith (as far as I am aware of them) and Koran when it is about the lands that are not under Islam). And Islamic history proves me right.

you also did not show me where Jesus explicitly commanded and ordered that kind of violance and subjugation that muhammad explicitly has demanded, and practiced himself. You also still avoid the difference between church and Christianity as the tradition of following the Christ. I would also like to know where you see violant Islam in conflict with the example the founder of this religion, Muhammad, has set.
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