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Old 06-14-11, 07:44 PM   #5
Platapus
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If a gay judge needs to recuse him or herself from a case that involves gay marriage, than heterosexual judges would need to recuse themselves from cases involving heterosexual marriage.

But, of course that does not make sense. The sexuality of a judge should not have any effect on their ability to judge cases.

If a heterosexual judge can be presumed to be able to judge a case involving heterosexuals, why would not a homosexual judge be presumed to be able to judge a case involving homosexuals?
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