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SUBSIM: The Web's #1 resource for all submarine & naval simulations since 1997 |
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#1 |
Weps
![]() Join Date: Oct 2008
Location: Veria, Greece
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One thing i just remembered reading the post of Torplexed.
Japan's main oil supplier was USA. About 90% of Japan's oil imports were originated from USA. The embargo could easily cripple IJN. Quite provocative move in such a little time, in my opinion. I wont ask what the hell was France doing in indochina. Probably the same what Britain was doing in africa and India or America in the pacific. Edit: As far as i know, Roosevelt won his last elections but guaranteeing neuterality to the war, didnt he? |
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#2 | ||
Seasoned Skipper
![]() Join Date: Jan 2002
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#3 | |
Stowaway
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What obligation did US companies or the government have to keep selling goods to Japan? As for provocation I would have thought the main provocation was when Japan sank a US warship which was escorting US oil tankers that were being threatened by Japan. I would of thought that was sufficient provocation for the US to block all its trade with Japan. But no, a country later blocking some of its trade with another country that is on the rampage across a continent is the real provocative move in some peoples book ![]() |
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#4 | |
Lucky Jack
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__________________
“You're painfully alive in a drugged and dying culture.” ― Richard Yates, Revolutionary Road |
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#5 |
Let's Sink Sumptin' !
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The image of a Japan backed into a corner by American boycotts and sanctions and finally lashing out in desperation has been a staple of anti-Roosevelt politics and revisionist history for a quarter century after 1945. Did the US use a powerful economic lever on Japan by resorting to embargo? Yes, because diplomatic protests through normal channels to a country essentially being run by a military clique who no longer answered to any civilian authority wasn't working anymore.
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