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Originally Posted by moose1am
OJ would have been found guilty if the Jury was not composed of mostly blacks. If they had held the trial in the White section of LA and used an all white jury OJ would have been in jail for the last 13 years or would have been executed by now.
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But that's exactly why the defense gets to control the setting for the trial - to make sure the jury is prejudiced against the defendant. And I use the word 'prejudice' in its intended context: 'pre-judging'.
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Originally Posted by 1480
...the word derived from niggard...
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Actually, though they sound very similar, the two words have absolutely no linguistic connection.
nig·gard
1.an excessively parsimonious, miserly, or stingy person.
2.niggardly; miserly; stingy.
[Origin: 1325–75; ME
nyggard, equiv. to
nig niggard (< Scand; cf. dial. Sw
nygg; akin to OE
hnéaw stingy) + -gard]
http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/niggard
And the 'N' word:
[Origin: 1640–50; < F
nègre < Sp
negro black
]
http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/negro
So neither is derived from the other - they just sound that way.