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Originally Posted by Tribesman
That makes no sense.
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for you it definitely does not, since you look at a communist map and say: hey, come he says there are no "Yugoslavians" and "Yugoslavia" while the map says otherwise?
The German government has forced some regulation that the labour and concentration camps of the war period should not be called "German concentration camps" but "Nazi concentration camps" (as if all Germans left Germany after 1933, and came back in 1945...) but if you aim at this argument you are not even close.
If you want to call Jasenovac a "Yugoslavian camp" I guess you can do it from a purely geographical point of view, as it was placed in former Yugoslavia. But historically it is wrong since it has been documented who was responsible for establishing the camp and being in charge of it.
If Serbs are considered to be Yugoslavians, then by saying "Yugoslavian camp" you imply what? That Serbs were killing Serbs?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Tribesman
However, does wiki clearly state who was reponsible for the camps in Poland just like it does with the camps in Yugoslavia, Russia or Germany?
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I don't get it.
I would leave Yugoslavia aside, it's a slippery "area".
But the rest: Poland, Russia and Germany are pretty clear to me.
If Obama meant to say "death camp in Poland" he could have said that.
"Polish death camp" has already been used several times and is known for making trouble to the speaker/writer. It implies something which is historically incorrect.
Maybe you have heard of some mysterious "Polish camps"?