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In 110 AD, the union of marriage began to be overseen by the Church. This started with the writing of bishop Ignatius of Antioch to the bishop Polycarp of Smyrna in which he advocated such unions be done with the blessings of the Church.
There was no governmental oversight of marriage at that time. Such oversight came much later.
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Prove that there was no government oversight, some bloke saying that the princes of his government should become involved in the deal proves absolutely nothing either way.
Or does it?
Can it be that it proves it was always a goverment issue and since NC is in a place where there is a seperation of church and state the political administrators of the church shall have no role whatsoever in marriage
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For those actually interested in Biblical scholarship
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Yeah right, as yeah verily it is written, only be nice to "christians"
Biblical scholarship delivered way back in the early pages of this topic when liitle St. Paul jumped up to say you were talking bollox on law.