[AVGWarhawk]

Originally Posted by ZeeWolf

So, if you refuse to even lift a figure (exempt your middle one )to help assemble the data needed. And I will use the 11 to 1 figure to establish
the doubt on the mantra of the Sinless one's assertions.
And move on from there.

"the ratio of heterosexual to homosexual pedophiles was calculated to be approximately 11:1"

found here:
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/1556756

Shalom

ZeeWolf

Another article dealing with the proportionality issue of child abuse was published by Freund and Watson in 1992. These authors5 noted the 1985 literature review by FRI’s chairman, and agreed that the ratio of female to male pedophilic victims was about 2:1, even as the proportion of heterosexual to homosexual men is about 20:1. Freund and Watson did some ‘figuring’ to arrive at an estimate that homosexual men are ‘only’ twice as apt to be pedophiles. They concluded that their findings generated support for the notion that “a homosexual development notably often does not result in androphilia [sexual desire for men] but in homosexual pedophilia [desire for boys]. … This, of course, should not be understood as saying that androphiles may have a greater propensity to offend against children than do gynephiles [men interested in sex with women],….” (p. 41). Notice that both sets of Canadian investigators went to some lengths to ‘interpret’ or ‘gloss’ their results as not harmful to the gay rights cause, but were honest enough to report ‘the facts’ as they found them.

http://www.familyresearchinst.org/20...of-pedophilia/