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Old 06-30-09, 01:58 AM   #17
Aramike
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Kazuaki Shimazaki II View Post
But by that ridiculous standard, until the Supreme Court changed the ruling, the debate was "over" and the action WAS NOT discriminatory.
Really? So the SUPREME COURT ruled upon this case previously? You know, the highest court in the US? The one that, now having ruled, leaves no options for higher court appeals?

Maybe you should understand an argument before you label it ridiculous.

Seems to me like there was plenty of debate (read: appeals) before the courts, and now that's over with. Ergo, the debate is over.

Simple, right?
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